Why is the expression "prince of this world" used instead of
"king of the world" in John's version of the Gospel?  As in 
the Prince of this world cometh and I ..." It may refer to the 
king's son, but more likely it was used to refer to the belief 
that God is the "king of this world" and that therefore the 
expression "king of this world" was not to be used for other
mortals.  This was probably later copied to its counterpart 
expression "there is no king but Caesar" and so the comment
"anyone who calls himself a king speaks against Caesar".  
   If this is true, then the King James version of Matthew's
account of the crucificion where Jesus supposedly said "Thou 
sayest it", when he was asked if he were the king of the Jews,
is probably the more accurate account compared to newer
translations which has him saying "Yes, it is as you say".  
    That latter expression sounded kind of false to 
me, anyhow.

to go back to the table of contents (index page) 
page 1 Table of Contents